Re: Question about ObjectId

From: Craig Miskell (cmiskel..lbatross.co.nz)
Date: Sun May 11 2003 - 15:41:36 EDT

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    Well, it can't be an ObjAttribute name because there's no guarantee the
    PK will be available as an ObjAttribute. In fact, we generally advise not
    to. +1 for figuring it out from the mapping, at least for the case where
    there's only one attribute. Multiple attribute pk's would be difficult
    without the current Map, in which case we need keys to identify which
    attributes each value maps to.... arrghh.

    Craig

     On Sun, 11 May 2003, Holger [iso-8859-1] Hoffstätte wrote:

    >
    > I'm trying to reproduce Laszlo Spoor's flattened relationship bug and just
    > realized that ObjectId takes the name of the DbAttribute instead of the
    > name of the ObjAttribute. This is extremely surprising! I don't know why I
    > haven't noticed this before, but shouldn't this be regarded as a bug? I
    > mean when I have to know the name of the physical attribute when
    > constructing an ObjectId, it violates the Obj/Db* layer separation. Maybe
    > even the name of the attribute should be completely taken out, after all
    > we already have the class/ObjEntity in question and can find the name of
    > the PK(s) from the mapping.
    > Thoughts?
    >
    > Holger
    >

    Craig Miskell
    Programmer, Black Albatross, Otago University, New Zealand
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